The Fatwas regarding the Zakaah of jewelry are clear, especially Fatwa No. 89060 where you explained the ruling of jewelry to be worn and that to be saved. However, I would like to clarify that all the women here own jewelry for the purpose of wearing it without completely dismissing the intention of saving any of it. In other words, it is kept as the wealth of a woman which she can use at times of need such as divorce or her husband's death. So, what is the ruling in light of this reality, namely, the fact that the gold that is originally prepared to be worn is not completely free of the intention of being saved? Hence, the intention of saving cannot be separated from the basic intention of being worn?
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad, sallallaahu ‘alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and messenger.
This is a good inquiry and the ruling is that no Zakah is due on jewelry that a woman owns for adornment. The fact that the woman intends to sell some of it should she need money does not mean that she owns the jewelry for the purpose of saving it. This is the same as someone who bought a car to drive or clothes to wear and then sells them out of need. Even if we take your words for granted, what actually counts is the original purpose for owning the jewelry. Any accidental or secondary purposes do not affect the original ruling.
Allaah Knows best.
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