As-salaamu 3laikum, I recently heard a speaker say that anyone who says there is no politics in the Qur'an is a kaafir. He said that the way Musa was dealing with Firawn is an example of politics. Is what he said correct and is it obligatory to apply the term 'politics'? Jazaak Allahu khair.
All perfect praise be to Allaah, The Lord of the Worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allaah, and that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger.
Politics has a meaning that is approved under Sharee'ah and another which is not. So, if someone denies the existence of politics in the Quran, if he means politics in its Sharee'ah-approved meaning, which means leading the people and administering their affairs according to the principles of Islam, then such politics is part of the essence of the religion, and denying it is disbelief.
Shaykh Ibn Baaz said in his Fataawa: “If someone advocates the idea of separating the state from the religion, and that the place of religion is restricted to mosques and homes, and that the state can do whatever it wishes to do and rule with whatever it wishes to rule with, then he has indeed invented untruth about Allaah, and lied against Allaah and His Messenger, committing thereby an abominable mistake. Rather, this act constitutes disbelief and extreme error, we seek refuge with Allaah from that. In fact, all people are commanded to submit themselves to the rulings of the Sharee'ah and its legislation (law) concerning acts of worship and other issues. Moreover, the state is obliged to implement the ruling of the Sharee'ah and act according to its judgment in all its actions (and dealings)....”
However, if that person had intended the other meaning of it (politics), which is contrary to Sharee'ah, and is based on void principles like Western democracy, which makes the people the source of authority and the ruler, and that the lawful is what the people had made lawful even though it is forbidden in Sharee'ah, and that what is forbidden is what they had made forbidden even though it is lawful in Sharee'ah, and which is also the policy based on bad morals, like lying and hypocrisy, so if he had intended this meaning, then he has indeed said the truth. For more benefit, please refer to Fatwa 5490.
As regards saying that the way Moses dealt with Pharaoh was a form of politics, then yes, it was a form of politics in its Sharee'ah-approved concept. Abu Hurayrah narrated that the Prophet said: “The children of Israel were ruled by Prophets, whenever a Prophet perished, he was succeeded by another Prophet.” [Bukhari and Muslim]
However, it is not necessary to use the term policy, but it is permissible for people to use it if it refers to the correct meaning thereof. It is on this basis that we can speak about the terms used by the people in various sciences and affairs.
Allaah Knows best.
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